What is obedience without disobedience?

At the end of Joshua, Israel had conquered most of the Promised Land, though there were still groups of Canaanites remaining (see Judges 1:19-34). Judges 2:22 and 3:4 state that God allowed this to happen to test the Israelites.

Judges 2:22- I did this to test Israel, to see whether or not they would follow the ways of the Lord as their ancestors did.

Judges 3:4- These people were left to test the Israelites, to see whether they would obey the commands the Lord had given to their ancestors through Moses.

Unfortunately, the Israelites chose to disobey. As given in Judges 3:5, "they lived among the Canaanites, Hittites, Amorites, Perizzites, Hivites and Jebusites, ... they intermarried with them. Israelite sons married their daughters, and Israelite daughters were given in marriage to their sons. And the Israelites served their gods."

Why did God want to test the Israelites? Why not just drive out all the Canaanites in the first place and let the Israelites live without the temptation? Well, my guess is: obedience would be meaningless without the opportunity for disobedience. That is, for the Israelites to understand true obedience (to choose God above all else), they must had first been given the opportunity for disobedience (to choose other gods).